Some of us have been having a discussion about Jesus ‘ words from the cross: “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” I grew up hearing preachers describe the scene like this: “Jesus was taking all of the sins of the world upon Himself, and it was so bad that God could not stand to look upon all that sin, so He literally had to turn His back on His Son, forsaking him” (usually it was much more detailed and dramatic than that, but you get the idea). I probably even preached something like that in my early days.
After more study, and listening to some respected teachers, my view has changed. Jesus was quoting the beginning of Psalm 22 (which gives an amazingly detailed description of the crucifixion). Could Jesus, in referencing that Psalm, have been essentially saying, “Psalm 22 is now being fulfilled”? In addition, If God the Father had literally forsaken/abandoned His Son, then who was Jesus talking to when He said, “Father forgive them….” and “Father, into your hands I commit my Spirit”?
What do you think?